Full Test - NEET PYQs (2024)

Botany - Section A

Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?
1. Vegetative reproduction
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Sexual reproduction
4. Nucellar polyembryony

2. Benthic organisms are affected most by:
1. Light reaching the forest floor
2. Surface turbulence of water
3. Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
4. Water-holding capacity of soil

For the assimilation of one CO₂ molecule in C₃ plants, the energy required in the form of ATP and NADPH₂is:
1. 2 ATP & 2 NADPH₂
2. 5 ATP & 3 NADPH₂
3. 3 ATP & 2 NADPH₂
4. 18 ATP & 12 NADPH₂

4. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

1.	Telophase	2.	Metaphase I
3.	Metaphase II	4.	Anaphase II

Alage have cell wall made up of:
1. Cellulose, galactans and mannans
2. Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
3. Pectins, cellulose and proteins
4. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus, and powdery mildew was brought about by:
1.Mutation breeding
2.Biofortification
3.Tissue culture
4.Hybridization and selection

Which of the following is considered a hot spot of biodiversity in India?
1. Western Ghats
2. Indo-Gangetic plain
3. Eastern Ghats
4. Aravalli hills

Somaclones are obtained by:
1. tissue culture
2. plant breeding
3. irradiation
4. genetic engineering

In a marriage between a male with blood group A and a female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of the parents?
1. I^A i (Male) ; I^B I^B (Female)
2. I^A I^A (Male) ; I^B I^B (Female)
3. I^A I^A (Male) ; I^B i (Female)
4. I^A i (Male) ; I^B i(Female)

10.

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
1. Gibberellin
2. Ethylene
3. Abscisic acid
4. Cytokinin

11.

Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the question which follows them.

A:	In liverworts, mosses, and ferns gametophytes are free-living
B:	Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
C:	Sexual reproduction inFucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
D:	The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
E:	Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

12.

Which one of the following microbes forms a symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?
1. Azotobacter
2. Aspergillus
3. Glomus
4. Trichoderma

13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1.	The amount of some toxic substances of industrial wastewater increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.
2.	The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage-polluted water body consumeaquatic organisms.
3.	Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries.
4.	Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.

14. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory pathway through:
1.Acetyl CoA
2.α - Ketoglutaric acid
3.Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
4.Pyruvic acid

15.

T.O. Diener discovered a:
1. free infectious RNA
2. free infectious DNA
3. infectious protein
4. bacteriophage

16. The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession are :
1. Free-floating angiosperms
2. Submerged rooted plants
3. Phytoplanktons
4. Filamentous algae

17.

Casparian bands are found in:

1.	Endodermis	2.	Pericycle
3.	Periderm	4.	Cortex

18.

Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

1.	Geitonogamy	2.	Xenogamy
3.	Apogamy	4.	Cleistogamy

19. Which of the following protects nitrogenase inside the root nodule of a leguminous plant ?
1. Catalase
2. leg haemoglobin
3. Transaminase
4. Glutamate dehydrogenase

20.

During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be:
1. TCTGG
2. UAUGC
3. UATGC
4. TATGC

21. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion(A):	A flower is defined as a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason(R):	Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

22.

In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem isdark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :

a.	secretion of secondary metabolites and theirdeposition in the lumen of vessels.
b.	deposition of organic compounds like tanninsand resins in the central layers of stem.
c.	deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
d.	deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
e.	presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. (b) and (d) Only
2. (a) and (b) Only
3. (c) and (d) Only
4. (d) and (e) Only

23.

The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on:
1. date of collection
2. name of collector
3. local names
4. height of the plant

24.

Offsets are produced by:

1.	Meiotic divisions
2.	Mitotic divisions
3.	Parthenocarpy
4.	Parthenogenesis

25.

The formula for exponential population growth is:
1. dt/dN= rN
2. dN/rN= dt
3. rN/dN= dt
4. dN/dt= rN

26.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
2.	Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
3.	Both ATP and NADPH + H⁺ are non-cyclic synthesized during photophosphorylation.
4.	Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.

27.

If you are provided with the root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
1. Telophase
2. Anaphase
3. Prophase
4. Metaphase

28.

Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?

1.	Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
2.	Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)
3.	Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
4.	Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts

29.

Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are:
1. Wheat, rice, and maize
2. Rice, maize, and sorghum
3. Wheat maize, and sorghum
4. Wheat, rice, and barley

30. The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called:
1. Biodiversity conservation
2. Semi-conservative method
3. Sustainable development
4. In-situ conservation

31. Tissue culture technique can produce an infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising:

1.	genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
2.	homozygous diploid plants
3.	development of new species
4.	variants through picking up somaclonal variations

32.

Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by:
1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Bateson and Punnet
3. T. H. Morgan
4. Watson and Crick

33.

Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by:

1.	removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released
2.	treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
3.	raising the plants from vernalised seeds
4.	treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate

34.

From an evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in:

1.	Gymnosperms	2.	Liverworts
3.	Mosses	4.	Pteridophytes

35.

Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?
1. Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
2. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
3. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
4. Ladybird beetle against aphids in mustard

Botany - Section B

36.

Niche is:

1.	All the biological factors in the organism environment
2.	The physical space where an organism lives
3.	The range of temperature that the organism needs to live
4.	The functional role played by the organism where it lives

37.

Select the correctly written complete scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus:
1. Mangifera Indica
2. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
3. Mangifera indica Linn.
4. Mangifera indica

38. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
1. Micropropagation
2. Differentiation
3. Somatic hybridization
4. Totipotency

39.

Consider the following four statements (I-IV) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only:

I.	Single-cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins, etc.
II.	Body weight-wise, the microorganismMethylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than that produced by a cow per day through its milk.
III.	Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C.
IV.	A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium.

1. Statements (I), (III), and (IV)
2. Statements (II), (III), and (IV)
3. Statements (I), (II)
4. Statements (III), (IV)

40.

Natural reservoir of phosphorus is:
1. Animal bones
2. Rock
3. Fossils
4. Sea water

41.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
2.	Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
3.	The hydrolytic enzyme of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
4.	Lysosomes are membrane bound structure.

42.

In angiosperms, functional megaspore developsinto:
1. Pollen sac
2. Embryo sac
3. Ovule
4. Endosperm

43.

Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year:
1. 1986
2. 1987
3. 1988
3. 1985

44.

Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived from the activity of:
1. Lateral meristem
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Apical meristem
4. Parenchyma

45.

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include:
1. methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
2. hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
3. hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
4. methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide

46.

The number of wildlife is continuously decreasing. What is the main reason for this:
1. Predation
2. Cutting down of forest
3. Destruction of habitat
4. Hunting

47.

The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as:
1. Co-factors of enzymes
2. Building blocks of important amino acids
3. Constituent of hormones
4. Binder of cell structure

48.

Organisms that obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called:
1. Photo autotrophs
2. Chemo autotrophs
3. Saprozoic
4. Coproheterotrophs

49. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with penicillium :
1. Buds
2. Zoospores
3. Conidia
4. Gemmules

50. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Spirogyra	(i)	Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highlyreducedmale or female gametophyte
(b)	Fern	(ii)	Dominant haploid free-livinggametophyte
(c)	Funaria	(iii)	Dominant diploid sporophytealternating with reducedgametophyte called prothallus
(d)	Cycas	(iv)	Dominant haploid leafygametophyte alternating withpartially dependent multicellular sporophyte

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

Zoology - Section A

51.

When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
1. divergent evolution
2. microevolution
3. co-evolution
4. convergent evolution

52. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-

1.	Pyloric sphincter	2.	Sphincter of Oddi
3.	Ileo - caecal valve	4.	Gastro-oesophageal sphincter

53. A sagittal section of the human brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-D:

1. C-Mid brain D-Cerebellum
2. A-Cerebrum C-Pons
3. B-Corpus callosum D-Medulla
4. A-Cerebral hemispheres B-Cerebellum

54.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
2.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
3.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
4.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

55.

Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach?

1.	Oxygen is transported by hemoglobin in blood
2.	The nitrogenous excretory product is urea
3.	The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
4.	Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon

56. In standard ECG diagram, the P-wave represents:
1. Depolarisation of the atria
2. Repolarisation of the ventricle
3. Depolarisation of the ventricle
4. End of systole

57.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Typhoid	(i)	Wuchereria
(b)	Pneumonia	(ii)	Plasmodium
(c)	Filariasis	(iii)	Salmonella
(d)	Malaria	(iv)	Haemophilus

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)

58.

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:
1. Addition of preservatives to the product
2. Purification of the product
3. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4. Availability of oxygen throughout the process

59.

Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:

1.	as bicarbonate ions
2.	in the form of dissolved gas molecules
3.	by binding to R.B.C
4.	as carbamino-haemoglobin

60.

Which one of the following is the correct match of the events occurring during the menstrual cycle?

1.	Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
2.	Proliferative phase - Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
3.	Development of corpus luteum - Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
4.	Menstruation - Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized

61.

Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

1.	Chordata – possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
2.	Chondrichthyes – possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
3.	Mammalia – give birth to young ones
4.	Reptilia – possesses 3-incompleteheart with one incompletely divided ventricle.

62.

Chemically hormones are:
1. Proteins, steroids & biogenic amines
2. Proteins only
3. Steroids only
4. Biogenic amines only

63.

Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of:
1. Implants only
2. Injections only
3. Pills, injections and implants
4. Pills only

64. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
1. Smooth muscle
2. Intercalated discs
3. Cartilage
4. Areolar tissue

65.

Transgenic plants are:

1.	produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
2.	generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
3.	Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
4.	grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field

66. Inulin is a polymer of:

1.	Fructose	2.	Galactose
3.	Amino Acids	4.	Glucose

67.

The occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is because:

1.	these species have been extinct in other regions
2.	of continental separation
3.	there is no terrestrial route to these places
4.	of retrogressive evolution

68.

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen:

1.	The pH of the stomach will fall abruptly
2.	Steapsin will be more effective
3.	Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
4.	The pancreatic enzymes, and especially trypsin and lipase, will not work efficiently

69. Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

	Column I	Column II
1.	Medulla oblongata	controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
2.	Limbic system	consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
3.	Hypothalamus	production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
4.	Corpus callosum	band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

70.

Which one of the following options gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C) they give out?

	A AMMONOTELIC	B UREOTELIC	C URICOTELIC
1.	Frog, Lizards	Aquatic Amphibia, Humans	Cockroach, Pigeon
2.	Aquatic Amphibia	Frog, humans	Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach
3.	Aquatic Amphibia	Cockroach, Humans	Frog, Pigeon, Lizards
4.	Pigeon, Humans	Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards	Cockroach, Frog

71.

Match List-I with List-II:

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Adhering junctions	(i)	Establish a barrier that prevents leakage of extracellular thingsacross a layer of cells
(b)	Tight junctions	(ii)	Functions like rivets and fasten cells together into strong sheets
(c)	Gap junctions	(iii)	Pass information through neurotransmitters from one cell to another
(d)	Synaptic junctions	(iv)	Provide cytoplasmic channels from one cell to an adjacent cell for communication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
3.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

72. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below :
1. A-E-C-B-D
2. B-D-E-C-A
3. E-A-D-B-C
4. E-C-A-D-B

73.

Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to theInternational Rules of Nomenclature, and correctly described?

1.	Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria
2.	Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
3.	E.Coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in the human intestine
4.	Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile

74.

The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
1. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
2. Bacillius subtilis
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Thermus aquaticus

75.

Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.

1.	Pleurisky	2.	Emphysema
3.	Pneumonia	4.	Asthma

76. Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.

1. ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
2. FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
3. ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
4. FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis

77. Which of the following animals has three chambered heart?

1.	Scoliodon	2.	Hippocampus
3.	Chelone	4.	Pteropus

78.

Normal sleep-wake cycle in a human body is maintained by the secretion of:
1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Pineal gland
4. Pituitary gland

79.

Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
1. Sex of the foetus
2. Down syndrome
3. Jaundice
4. Klinefelter syndrome

80.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

	Column I		Column-II
(a)	Floating Ribs	(i)	Located between second and seventh ribs
(b)	Acromion	(ii)	Head of the Humerus
(c)	Scapula	(iii)	Clavicle
(d)	Glenoid cavity	(iv)	Do not connect with the sternum

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
2.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

81. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Two DNA sequences were prepared corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulinand were introduced in the plasmids of Agrobacterium to produce insulin chain.
Statement II:	Chain A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4.Statement I is false but Statement II is true

82.

Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:

1.	Substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site.
2.	Addition of a lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
3.	A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
4.	Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

83. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favorite for some astronomers, means:

1.	Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
2.	Creation of life from chemicals
3.	Origin of sperm in human testes
4.	Transfer of spores as a unit of life from other planets of Earth

84.

Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
1. Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
2. Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
3. Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, pro carboxypeptidase
4. Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

85.

The human hindbrain comprises three parts, one of which is:

1.	Cerebellum	2.	Hypothalamus
3.	Spinal	4.	Corpus callosum

Zoology - Section B

86.

The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

1.	neutrophils and eosinophils
2.	lymphocytes and macrophages
3.	eosinophils and lymphocytes
4.	neutrophils and monocytes

87. Match List I with List II.

	List-I		List-II
A.	Mast cells	I.	Ciliated epithelium
B.	Inner surface of bronchiole	II.	Areolar connective tissue
C.	Blood	III.	Cuboidal epithelium
D.	Tubular parts of nephron	IV.	specialised connective tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	III	IV	II	I
2.	I	II	IV	III
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	II	I	IV	III

88. Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.

	List I		List II
A.	Fovea	I	Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
B.	Iris	II.	External layer of eye formed of denseconnective tissue.
C.	Blind spot	III.	Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
D.	Sclera	IV.	Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	II	I	III	IV
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	IV	III	II	I
4.	I	IV	III	II

89.

Sliding filament theory can be best explained as:

1.	when myofilaments slide pasteach other, actin filaments shorten while myosin filament does not shorten
2.	actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide past each other
3.	actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
4.	when myofilaments slide past each other, myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments do not shorten

90. Match List-I with List-II:

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Adenine	(I)	Pigment
(B)	Anthocyanin	(II)	Polysaccharide
(C)	Chitin	(III)	Alkaloid
(D)	Codeine	(IV)	Purine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(IV)	(I)	(II)	(III)
2.	(IV)	(III)	(II)	(I)
3.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
4.	(I)	(IV)	(III)	(II)

91. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
Statement II:	Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect, the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
3. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True

92.

Figure shows a human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

1.	B-pelvis - broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.
2.	C- Medulla- inner zone of kidney and contains complex nephrons.
3.	D- Cortex- outer part of the kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons.
4.	A- Adrenal gland- located at the anterior part of the kidney; secretes catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.

93. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
1. Copper releasing IUD
2. Cervical barrier
3. Vault barrier
4. Non-Medicated IUD

94. Match List-I with List-II :

	List I		List II
(a)	Gene gun	(i)	Replacement of a faulty gene by a normal healthy gene
(b)	Gene therapy	(ii)	Used for transfer of gene
(c)	Gene cloning	(iii)	Total DNA in the cells of an organism
(d)	Genome	(iv)	To obtain identical copies of a particular DNA molecule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

95. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis:

A.	Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B.	Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C.	Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D.	Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E.	Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(E), (A), (D), (B), (C)	2.	(C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3.	(B), (E), (A), (C), (D)	4.	(D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

96.

Kwashiorkor disease is due to:

1.	simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
2.	simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories
3.	deficiency of carbohydrates
4.	protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency

97.

When both ovaries of a rat are removed then which hormone is decreased in blood:
1. Oxytocin
2. Prolactin
3. Estrogen
4. Gonadotrophic releasing factor

98. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:

1. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
2. Heart of bat, man and cheetah
3. Brain of bat, man and cheetah
4. Eye of octopus, bat and man

99. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

1.	Provides surface for diffusion of O₂ and CO₂
2.	It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
3.	Inhaled air is humidified
4.	Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature

100.

Match List - I with List - II

List-I	List-II
(a) Metamerism	(i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal system	(ii) Ctenophora
(c) Comb Plates	(iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts	(iv) Porifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	iii	iv	ii	i
2.	iv	i	ii	iii
3.	iv	iii	i	ii
4.	iii	iv	i	ii

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The IUPAC name of the above-mentioned compound is:
1. cis-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
2. trans-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
3. cis-3-Iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
4. trans-3-Iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

102. K_pfor the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K.
$\mathrm{CO_{2}(g)\,+\,C(s)\rightarrow \,2CO(g)}$
The value of K_cfor the reaction at the same temperature is:
(Given - R = 0.083 L bar K^–1 mol^–1)

1.	0.36	2.	3.6 × 10^–2
3.	3.6 × 10^–3	4.	3.6

103.

In DNA, the complementary bases are:
1. Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
2. Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil
3. Adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine
4. Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine

104.

The oxidation state of Cr in ${CrO}_{6}$ is -

1.	–6	2.	+12
3.	+6	4.	+4

105.

The coordinationcompound that will give four isomers is:
1. [Fe(en)₃]Cl₃
2. [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
3. [Fe(PPh₃)₃NH₃ClBr]Cl
4. [Co(PPh₃)₃Cl]Cl₃

106. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
1.Cl₂> Br₂> F₂> l₂

2. Br₂> l₂> F₂> Cl₂
3. F₂> Cl₂> Br₂> l₂
4. l₂> Br₂> Cl₂> F₂

107.

The heating of phenylmethyl ether with HI produces-
1. Iodobenzene
2. Phenol
3. Benzene
4. Ethyl chloride

108.

A compound that releases CO₂most easily upon heating is?
1. $K_{2} C O_{3}$
2. $N a_{2} C O_{3}$
3. $M g C O_{3}$
4. $C a C O_{3}$

109.

A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)Cl freezes at -0.0073 ^oC. The number of moles of ions that 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be:
(K_f = -1.86^oC/m)

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	1

110.

Molar conductivities $(\land °_{m})$ at infinite dilution of
NaCl, HCl, and $C H_{3} C O O N a$ are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.0 S cm²mol^–1respectively.
$(\land °_{m})$ for $C H_{3} C O O H$ will be:

1.	$180.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$	2.	$290.8~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$
3.	$390.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$	4.	$425.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$

111.

The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence?
1. Ga < ln < Al < Tl
2. Al < Ga < ln < Tl
3.Tl < ln < Ga < Al
4.ln < Tl < Ga < Al

112.

Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by the froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching?
1. Argentite
2. Galena
3. Copper pyrite
4. Sphalerite

113.

In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?

1.	ClF₃	2.	BF₃
3.	AlF₃	4.	NF₃

114. During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe²⁺ion?
1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
2. Dilute nitric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid
4. Dilute hydrochloric acid

115. Which one is an example of heterogeneous catalysis?

1.	Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron.
2.	Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of nitrogen.
3.	Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by H⁺ ions.
4.	Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen monoxide.

116. The correct sequence given below contains neutral, acidic, basic, and amphoteric oxide each, respectively is:

1.	NO, ZnO, CO₂, CaO	2.	ZnO, NO, CaO, CO₂
3.	NO, CO₂, ZnO, CaO	4.	NO, CO₂, CaO, ZnO

117.

In a S_N2 substitution reaction of the type
$\mathrm{R}-\mathrm{Br}+\mathrm{Cl}^{-} \xrightarrow{\mathrm{DMF}} \mathrm{R}-\mathrm{Cl}+\mathrm{Br}^{-}$
one of the following that has the highest relative rate is:

1.	$\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Br}$	2.
3.		4.	$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Br}$

118.

Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?
1. N₂O₅
2. NO₂
3. N₂O
4. NO

119.

Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶?
(At. no :Mn = 25, Fe= 26, Co= 27, Ni = 28)
1. $N i^{3 +}$
2. $M n^{3 +}$
3. $F e^{3 +}$
4. $C o^{3 +}$

120.

CF₂ = CF₂ is a monomer of:
1. Teflon
2. Orlon
3. Polythene
4. Nylon-6

121.

The maximum number of molecules is present in:

1.	5L of N₂ gas at STP	2.	0.5 g of H₂ gas
3.	10g of O₂ gas	4.	15 L of H₂ gas at STP

122.

Match list-I with list-II:

	List-I (Amines)		List-II (pK_b values)
(a)	N-Methylmethanamine	(i)	9.30
(b)	Ammonia	(ii)	9.38
(c)	N-Methylaniline	(iii)	4.75
(d)	Benzenamine	(iv)	3.27

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)

123. Which amongst the following is used in controlling depression and hypertension?

1.	Seldane	2.	Valium
3.	Equanil	4.	Prontosil

124.

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

1.		2.
3.		4.

125.

The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following:
(i) Benzene (ii) Toluene
(iii) Chlorobenzene and
(iv) Phenol
would be:
1. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
2.(ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
3.(iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
4.(iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

126.

If 400 ml gas at 500 torrs and 666.6 ml gas at 600 torrs is taken in a container of 3 liters, then the total pressure of the mixture is:
1. 200 torr
2. 400 torr
3. 600 torr
4. 50 torr

127.

From the following bond energies:
H—H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol^-1
C=C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol^-1
C—C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol^-1
C—H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol^-1
Enthalpy for the reaction,

will be:

1.	1523.6 kJ mol^-1	2.	-243.6 kJ mol^-1
3.	-120.0 kJ mol^-1	4.	553.0 kJ mol^-1

128.

The reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by the elimination of water. The reagents are:

1.	A Grignard reagent.
2.	Hydrazine in the presence of a feebly acidic solution.
3.	Hydrocyanic acid.
4.	Sodium hydrogen sulphite.

129.

Copper has a face-centered cubic (fcc) lattice with interatomic spacing equal to 2.54Å. The value of the lattice constant for this lattice is:
1. 3.59Å
2. 2.54 Å
3. 1.27 Å
4. 5.08 Å

130.

The incorrect set of quantum numbers among the following is:
1. n= 4, l= 0, m= 0, s= -1/2
2.n= 5, l= 3, m= 0, s= +1/2
3.n= 3, l= 2, m= -3, s= -1/2
4.n= 3, l= 2, m= 2, s= -1/2

131.

A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303 $\times 10^{- 3}$ $s^{- 1}$ . The time required for 40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will be
[Given that $\log_{10} 2 = 0.3010$ ]

1.	230.3 s	2.	301 s
3.	2000 s	4.	602 s

132.

The pair that on reaction will not evolve $H_{2}$ gas is
1. Copper and HCl (aqueous)
2. Iron and steam
3. Iron and $H_{2} S O_{4}$ (aqueous)
4. Sodium and ethyl alcohol

133.

$\mathrm{CH_3-CH_3, \ CH_3-CH_2-CH_3, \ }$
$\mathrm{\left(CH_3\right)_2 CH-CH_3, }$and$\mathrm{CH_3-CH_2-CH\left(CH_3\right)_2 }$
The increasing order of stability of the free radicals formed from homolytic fissionof the above three alkanes is:

1.	$\mathrm{ (CH_3)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ <CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<(CH_3)_3 \dot{C} }$
2.	$ \mathrm{CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ <\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}}$
3.	$\mathrm{CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3\\ <\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3 }$
4.	$\mathrm{ \left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2-CH_3 \\ <CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H_2 }$

134.

When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the pH of the resulting solution will be:

1.	12.65	2.	2.0
3.	7.0	4.	1.04

135.

Which of the following statement is not true about glucose?
1. It is an aldohexose.
2. It contains five hydroxyl groups.
3. It is a reducing sugar.
4. It is an aldopentose.

Chemistry - Section B

136.

The IUPAC name of $[C o {(N H_{3})}_{3} C l B r N O_{2}]$ will be:
1. Triamminebromochloronitrocobaltate (III)
2. Triamminebromochloronitrocobalt (III)
3. Triamminebromonitrochlorocobalt (III)
4. Triamminenitrobromochlorocobalt (III)

137.

HCl with an alkene X reacts in accordance with Markovnikov’s rule to give 1-Chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The structure of alkene (X) is:

1.		2.
3.	(1) and (2)	4.

138.

The vapour pressure of two liquids 'P' and 'Q' are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q would be:
1. 68 torr
2. 140 torr
3. 72 torr
4. 20 torr

139. The reagents with which glucose does not reason to give the corresponding test/products are:
A. Tollen's reagent
B. Schiff's reagent
C. $\text{HCN}$
D. $\text{NH}_2\text{OH}$
E. $\text{NaHSO}_3$
Choose the correct options from the given below:-

1.	$\text{A}$and$\text{D}$	2.	$\text{B}$and$\text{E}$
3.	$\text{E}$and$\text{D}$	4.	$\text{B}$and$\text{C}$

140.

Which compound, upon reduction with lithium aluminium hydride, yields a secondary amine?
1. Nitroethane
2. Methylisocyanide
3. Acetamide
4. Methyl cyanide

141.

Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?
1. Ozone
2. Acrolein
3. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
4. Chlorofluorocarbons

142.

Increasing order of bond length is:
1. $N O^{-}$ $<$ $N O$ $<$ $N O^{+}$ $<$ $O_{2}^{-}$
2. $O_{2}^{-}$ $<$ $N O$ $<$ $N O^{-}$ $<$ $N O^{+}$
3. $O_{2}^{-}$ $<$ $N O^{-}$ $<$ $N O <$ $N O^{+}$
4. $N O^{+}$ $<$ $N O$ $<$ $N O^{-}$ $<$ $O_{2}^{-}$

143.

The set of monomers that forms a biodegradable polymer is:
1.H₂N-CH₂-COOHandH₂N-(CH₂)₅-COOH
2.HO-CH₂-CH₂-OHandHOOC-C₆H₄-COOH
3.C₆H₅-CH=CH₂andCH₂=CH-CH=CH₂
4.CH₂=CH-CNandCH₂=CH-CH=CH₂

144.

The correct order of $I^{s t}$ IP(ionization potential) among the following elements Be, B, C, N, O is:

1.	B < Be < C < O < N	2.	B < Be < C < N < O
3.	Be < B < C < N < O	4.	Be < B < C < O < N

145. The product that cannot be formed in the following reaction is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

146.

The product formed in the below-mentioned reaction is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

147.

In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order:
1. MCl>Ml>MBr>MF
2.MF>MCl>MBr>Ml
3.MF>MCl>Ml>MBr
4.Ml>MBr>MCl>MF

148.

Pure water can be obtained from sea water by:
1. Centrifugation
2. Plasmolysis
3. Reverse osmosis
4. Sedimentation

149.

For a cubic crystal structure, which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristic is correct?
1. $a \neq b \neq c$ $a n d$ $α \neq β$ $a n d$ $γ \neq 90 °$
2. $a \neq b \neq c$ $a n d$ $α = β$ $=$ $γ = 90 °$
3. $a = b = c$ $a n d$ $α \neq β$ $=$ $γ = 90 °$
4. $a = b = c$ $a n d$ $α = β =$ $γ = 90 °$

150.

In HS^-, I^-, RNH₂, NH₃ the correct order of proton accepting tendency will be:

1.	I^-> NH₃> RNH₂> HS^-	2.	NH₃> RNH₂> HS^-> I^-
3.	RNH₂> NH₃> HS^-> I^-	4.	HS^-> RNH₂> NH₃> I^-

Physics - Section A

151.

A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet tall building. After a fall of 30 feet each towards the earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of:
1. 1: 4
2. 1: 2
3. 1: $\sqrt{2}$
4. $\sqrt{2}$ :1

152.

$If X (n,$ $α$ $) converts into$ ${}_{3}^{7}L i$ , then X will be:
1. ${}_{5}^{10}B$
2. ${}_{5}^{9}B$
3. ${}_{4}^{11}B e$
4. ${}_{2}^{4}H e$

153.

The frequency of a simple pendulum in a free-falling lift will be:
1. zero
2. infinite
3. can't say
4. finite

154. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is $100$ kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires $10$ shots horizontally, in $5$ s. Each bullet has a mass of $10~\mathrm{g}$ with a muzzle velocity of $800$ms^-1. The final velocity acquired by the person and the average force exerted on the person are:
1.$-0.08~ \text{ms}^{-1} ; 16~ \text{N} $
2.$-0.8~ \text{ms}^{-1} ; 16~ \text{N} $
3.$-1.6~ \text{ms}^{-1} ; 16~ \text{N} $
4.$-1.6 ~\text{ms}^{-1} ; 8 ~\text{N}$

155.

If force $[F]$, acceleration $[A]$ and time $[T]$are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities, then find the dimensions of energy:
1.$\left[FAT^{-1}\right]$
2.$\left[FA^{-1}T\right]$
3.$\left[FAT\right]$
4.$\left[FAT^{2}\right]$

156. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a $100~\text{kW}$transmitter in $1~\text{hr}$is:
1.$1\times 10^{5}~\text J$
2.$36\times 10^{7}~\text J$
3.$36\times 10^{4}~\text J$
4.$36\times 10^{5}~\text J$

157. A container of volume $200$ cm³ contains $0.2$ mole of hydrogen gas and $0.3$ mole of argon gas. The pressure of the system at temperature $200$ K ($R=8.3$ JK^–1 mol^–1) will be:
1. $ 6.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} $
2. $ 6.15 \times 10^4 ~\text{Pa} $
3. $ 4.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} $
4. $ 4.15 \times 10^6 ~\text{Pa}$

158.

In a certain region of space with volume $0.2~\text m^3,$the electric potential is found to be $5~\text V$throughout. The magnitude of the electric field in this region is:
1. $0.5~\text {N/C}$
2. $1~\text {N/C}$
3. $5~\text {N/C}$
4. zero

159.

The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope for a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of:
1. 10^–4 rad
2. 10^–6 rad
3. 10⁶ rad
4. 10^–2 rad

160. A cricket ball is thrown by a player at a speed of $20$ m/s in a direction $30^\circ$ above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the ball during its motion is: (Take$g=10$ m/s²)
1. $5$ m
2. $10$ m
3. $20$ m
4. $25$ m

161.

The dependence of acceleration due to gravity 'g' on the distance 'r' from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density, is as shown in figure below:

The correct figure is:
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

162.

Six vectors $\vec{a}$ through $\vec{f}$ have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true?

1. $\vec{b} + \vec{c} = \vec{f}$
2. $\vec{d} + \vec{c} = \vec{f}$
3. $\vec{d} + \vec{e} = \vec{f}$
4. $\vec{b} + \vec{e} = \vec{f}$

163.

A thin semicircular conducting the ring $(PQR)$ of radius $r$ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field $B,$ as shown in the figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when it moves with speed$v$ is:

1.	zero
2.	$Bv\pi r^{2}/2$and$P$is at a higher potential
3.	$\pi rvB$and$R$is at a higher potential
4.	$2BvR$and$R$is at higher potential

164.

If $Q$, $E$, and $W$denote respectively the heat added, the change in internal energy, and the work done in a closed cycle process, then:

1.	$W=0$	2.	$Q=W=0$
3.	$E=0$	4.	$Q=0$

165. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side $l$ is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that$\vec{B}$is in the plane of the coil. If due to a current $i$ in the triangle, a torque $\tau$ acts on it, the side $l$ of the triangle will be:
1.$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \left(\frac{\tau}{Bi}\right)$
2.$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \frac{\tau}{Bi}$
3.$2 \left(\frac{\tau}{\sqrt{3} Bi} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$
4.$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \left(\frac{\tau}{Bi} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

166.

Gravitational force is required for:
1. stirring of liquid
2. convection
3. conduction
4. radiation

167. The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius $5~\text{mm}$ falling through a tank of oil at room temperature is $10~\text{cm}~\text{s}^{-1}$ . If the viscosity of oil at room temperature is $0.9~\text{kg}~\text{m}^{-1}~\text{s}^{-1}$, the viscous drag force is:
1. $8.48 \times10^{-3}$ N
2. $8.48 \times10^{-5}$ N
3.$4.23 \times10^{-3}$N
4.$4.23 \times10^{-6}$ N

168.

In a common-emitter transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3V. The resistance of the collector is 3k $Ω$ . If the current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2k $Ω$ , the voltage and power gain of the amplifier are:
1. 15 and 200
2. 150 and 15000
3. 20 and 2000
4. 200 and 1000

169.

The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

1.	length = $100~\text{cm},$diameter = $1~\text{mm}$
2.	length = $200~\text{cm},$diameter = $2~\text{mm}$
3.	length = $300~\text{cm},$diameter = $3~\text{mm}$
4.	length = $50~\text{cm},$diameter = $0.5~\text{mm}$

170.

If a charge $Q$ is situated at the corner of a cube, the electric flux passing through all six faces of the cube is:

1.	$\frac{Q}{6\varepsilon_0}$	2.	$\frac{Q}{8\varepsilon_0}$
3.	$\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_0}$	4.	$\frac{Q}{2\varepsilon_0}$

171.

A resistance $R$ draws power $P$ when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes $Z$, the power drawn will be:

1.	$P\Big({\large\frac{R}{Z}}\Big)^2$	2.	$P\sqrt{\large\frac{R}{Z}}$
3.	$P\Big({\large\frac{R}{Z}}\Big)$	4.	$P$

172.

Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.$E_A<E_B<E_C$. If $\lambda_1, ~\lambda_2$and$\lambda_3$are wavelengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct?
1.$\lambda_3=\lambda_1+\lambda_2$
2.$\lambda_1+\lambda_2+\lambda_3=0$
3.$\lambda_3^2=\lambda_1^2+\lambda_2^2$
4.$\lambda_3=\frac{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}$

173.

The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:

1.	paramagnetic material only.
2.	ferromagnetic material only.
3.	paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.
4.	diamagnetic material only.

174.

Which one among the following shows the particle nature of light?

1.	Photoelectric effect	2.	Interference
3.	Refraction	4.	Polarisation

175.

Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length $f$ each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is$F_1$. When the space between the two lenses is filled with glycerin which has the same refractive indexas that of glass$(\mu = 1.5),$then the equivalent focal length is$F_2$. The ratio$F_1:F_2$will be:
1.$3:4$
2.$2:1$
3.$1:2$
4.$2:3$

176.

A solid sphere of radius R is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force 'F' is applied at height 'h' from the lowest point. For the maximum acceleration of the centre of mass, which of the following is correct?
1. h = R
2. h = 2R
3. h = 0
4. No relation between h and R

177.

A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driver sounds a horn at a frequency of 'f'. The reflected sound heard by the driver has a frequency of 2f. If 'v' is the velocity of sound, then the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units, will be:
1. v/3
2. v/4
3. v/2
4. v/ $\sqrt{2}$

178.

The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:
$B_y = 2\times10^{-7} ~\text{sin}\left(\pi \times10^{3}x+3\pi\times10^{11}t\right )\text{T}$
The wavelength is:
1.$\pi\times 10^{3}~\text{m}$
2.$2\times10^{-3}~\text{m}$
3.$2\times10^{3}~\text{m}$
4.$\pi\times 10^{-3}~\text{m}$

179.

In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at $220$ V. It is supplied at $110$ V in the USA. If the resistance of a $60$ W bulb for use in India is $R$, the resistance of a $60$ W bulb for use in the USA will be:

1.	$2R$	2.	$\dfrac{R}{4}$
3.	$\dfrac{R}{2}$	4.	$R$

180.

A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from $10$ ms^-1to $20$ ms^-1while covering a distance of $135$ m in $t$ seconds. The value of $t$ is:

1.	$10$	2.	$1.8$
3.	$12$	4.	$9$

181.

A human body required the 0.01 Curie activity of radioactive substance after 24 hours. The half-life of radioactive is 6 hours. The maximum activity of a radioactive substance that can be injected will be:
1. 0.08
2. 0.04
3. 0.16
4. 0.32

182.

When a mass is suspended separately by two different springs, in successive order, then the time period of oscillations is $t _1$ and $t_2$ respectively. If it is connected by both springs as shown in the figure below, then the time period of oscillation becomes $t_0.$ The correct relation between $t_0,$ $t_1$& $t_2$ is:

1. ${t_{0}}^{2} = {t_{1}}^{2} + {t_{2}}^{2}$
2. ${t_{0}}^{- 2} = {t_{1}}^{- 2} + {t_{2}}^{- 2}$
3. ${t_{0}}^{- 1} = {t_{1}}^{- 1} + {t_{2}}^{- 1}$
4. $t_{0} = t_{1} + t_{2}$

183.

A block of mass $m$ is in contact with the cart $(C)$ as shown in the figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is$\mu.$ The acceleration$a$of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:
1.$a > \dfrac{mg}{\mu}$
2.$a > \dfrac{g}{\mu m}$
3.$a \ge \dfrac{g}{\mu}$
4.$a < \dfrac{g}{\mu}$

184.

The dimensions of ${(μ_{0} ε_{0})}^{- 1 / 2}$ are:
1. $[$ $L^{- 1} T$ $]$
2. $[$ $L T^{- 1}$ $]$
3. $[$ $L^{1 / 2} T^{1 / 2}$ $]$
4. $[$ $L^{1 / 2} T^{- 1 / 2}$ $]$

185. A particle moves with a velocity $(5\hat i-3\hat j+6\hat k)~\text{ms}^{-1}$horizontally under the action of a constant force $(10\hat i+10\hat j+20\hat k)~\text N.$The instantaneous power supplied to the particle is:

1.	$200~\text W$	2.	zero
3.	$100~\text W$	4.	$140~\text W$

Physics - Section B

186.

A monochromatic light of frequency $500~\text{THz}$is incident on the slits of Young's double slit experiment. If the distance between the slits is $0.2~\text{mm}$and the screen is placed at a distance $1~\text{m}$from the slits, the width of $10$ fringes will be:
1. $1.5~\text{mm}$
2. $15~\text{mm}$
3. $30~\text{mm}$
4. $3~\text{mm}$

187. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths $l,$ are initially at a distance $d$ $\left ( d\ll l \right )$ apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity $v.$ Then, $v$ varies as a function of the distance $x$ between the sphere, as:
1.$v\propto x$
2.$v\propto x^{-1/2}$
3.$v\propto x^{-1}$
4.$v\propto x^{1/2}$

188.

A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is:

1.	twice per revolution.
2.	four times per revolution.
3.	six times per revolution.
4.	once per revolution.

189. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the $x$-direction, which one of the following combinations gives the correct possible directions for the electric field $(E)$ and magnetic field $(B)$ respectively?
1. $\hat{j}+\hat{k},~-\hat{j}-\hat{k}$
2. $-\hat{j}+\hat{k},~-\hat{j}+\hat{k}$
3. $\hat{j}+\hat{k},~\hat{j}+\hat{k}$
4. $-\hat{j}+\hat{k},~-\hat{j}-\hat{k}$

190.

When $1$ kg of ice at $0^{\circ}$C melts into the water at $0^{\circ}$C, the resulting change in its entropy, taking the latent heat of ice to be $80$ cal/gm, is:
1.$8\times 10^4$cal/K
2.$80$cal/K
3.$293$cal/K
4.$273$cal/K

191.

A stone tied to the end of a $1$ m long string is whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. If the stone makes $22$ revolutions in $44$ seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?

1.	$\pi^2 ~\text{ms}^{-2} $and direction along the tangent to the circle.
2.	$\pi^2 ~\text{ms}^{-2} $ and direction along the radius towards the centre.
3.	$\frac{\pi^2}{4}~\text{ms}^{-2} $and direction along the radius towards the centre.
4.	$\pi^2~\text{ms}^{-2} $and direction along the radius away from the centre.

192.

A system consists of three masses $m_1,$$m_2,$and $m_3$connected by a string passing over a pulley $\mathrm{P}.$The mass $m_1$hangs freely, and $m_2$and $m_3$are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction$=\mu.$) The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass $m_1$is:
(Assume $m_1=m_2=m_3=m$ and $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity.)

1.$\frac{g(1-g \mu)}{9}$
2.$\frac{2 g \mu}{3}$
3.$ \frac{g(1-2 \mu)}{3}$
4.$\frac{g(1-2 \mu)}{2}$

193. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for the hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen-like ion. The atomic number $Z$ of hydrogen-like ion is:
1.$4$
2.$1$
3.$2$
4.$3$

194.

A cylindrical rod has temperatures $T_{1}$ $and$ $T_{2}$ at its ends. The rate of flow of heat is $Q_{1}$ cal/sec. If all the linear dimensions are doubled while keeping the temperature constant, then the rate of flow of heat $Q_{2}$ will be:
1. $4 Q_{1}$
2. $2 Q_{1}$
3. $\frac{Q_{1}}{4}$
4. $\frac{Q_{1}}{2}$

195. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is:
1. negative
2. zero
3. positive
4. infinity

196. A radioactive nucleus$_{\mathrm{Z}}^{\mathrm{A}}\mathrm{X}$undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence$_{\mathrm{Z}}^{\mathrm{A}}\mathrm{X}\rightarrow \mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{Z-1}}\rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{\mathrm{Z-3}}\rightarrow \mathrm{D}_{\mathrm{Z-2}}$where $\mathrm{Z}$ is the atomic number of element $\mathrm{X}$. The possible decay particles in the sequence are:

1.	$\beta^{+}, ~\alpha, ~\beta^{-}$	2.	$\beta^{-}, ~\alpha, ~\beta^{+}$
3.	$\alpha, ~\beta^{-},~\beta^{+}$	4.	$\alpha, ~\beta^{+},~\beta^{-}$

197.

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from $A$ to $B$ along a path $AB$ as shown in the figure.

The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is:

1.	$20~\text{kJ}$	2.	$-20~\text{kJ}$
3.	$20~\text{J}$	4.	$-12~\text{kJ}$

198. Two transparent media $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}$ are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are $1.5\times 10^{8} $ m/s and$2.0\times 10^{8} $ m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is:

1.	$\mathrm{tan^{-1}}$($0.750$)	2.	$\mathrm{sin^{-1}}$($0.500$)
3.	$\mathrm{sin^{-1}}$($0.750$)	4.	$\mathrm{tan^{-1}}$($0.500$)

199.

The power dissipated in an L-C-R series circuit connected to an AC source of emf E is:

1. $\frac{\varepsilon^2R}{\Big[R^2+\Big(L\omega-\frac{1}{C\omega}\Big)^2\Big]}$
2. $\frac{\varepsilon^2\sqrt{R^2+\Big(L\omega-\frac{1}{C\omega}\Big)^2}}{R}~$
3. $\frac{\varepsilon^2\Big[R^2+\Big(L\omega-\frac{1}{C\omega}\Big)^2\Big]}{R}$
4. $\frac{\varepsilon^2R}{\sqrt{R^2+\Big(L\omega+\frac{1}{C\omega}\Big)^2}}~$

200. The pair of quantities having the same dimensions are:

1.	impulse and surface tension
2.	angular momentum and work
3.	work and torque
4.	Young's modulus and energy

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1.	\(180.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)	2.	\(290.8~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)
3.	\(390.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)	4.	\(425.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)

1.	\(\mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Br}\)	2.
3.		4.	\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{Br}\)

1.	\(\mathrm{ (CH_3)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ <CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<(CH_3)_3 \dot{C} }\)
2.	\( \mathrm{CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ <\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}}\)
3.	\(\mathrm{CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3\\ <\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3 }\)
4.	\(\mathrm{ \left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2-CH_3 \\ <CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H_2 }\)

1.	\(\text{A}\)and\(\text{D}\)	2.	\(\text{B}\)and\(\text{E}\)
3.	\(\text{E}\)and\(\text{D}\)	4.	\(\text{B}\)and\(\text{C}\)

1.	zero
2.	\(Bv\pi r^{2}/2\)and\(P\)is at a higher potential
3.	\(\pi rvB\)and\(R\)is at a higher potential
4.	\(2BvR\)and\(R\)is at higher potential

1.	length = \(100~\text{cm},\)diameter = \(1~\text{mm}\)
2.	length = \(200~\text{cm},\)diameter = \(2~\text{mm}\)
3.	length = \(300~\text{cm},\)diameter = \(3~\text{mm}\)
4.	length = \(50~\text{cm},\)diameter = \(0.5~\text{mm}\)

1.	\(\frac{Q}{6\varepsilon_0}\)	2.	\(\frac{Q}{8\varepsilon_0}\)
3.	\(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_0}\)	4.	\(\frac{Q}{2\varepsilon_0}\)

1.	\(P\Big({\large\frac{R}{Z}}\Big)^2\)	2.	\(P\sqrt{\large\frac{R}{Z}}\)
3.	\(P\Big({\large\frac{R}{Z}}\Big)\)	4.	\(P\)

1.	\(\pi^2 ~\text{ms}^{-2} \)and direction along the tangent to the circle.
2.	\(\pi^2 ~\text{ms}^{-2} \) and direction along the radius towards the centre.
3.	\(\frac{\pi^2}{4}~\text{ms}^{-2} \)and direction along the radius towards the centre.
4.	\(\pi^2~\text{ms}^{-2} \)and direction along the radius away from the centre.

1.	\(\beta^{+}, ~\alpha, ~\beta^{-}\)	2.	\(\beta^{-}, ~\alpha, ~\beta^{+}\)
3.	\(\alpha, ~\beta^{-},~\beta^{+}\)	4.	\(\alpha, ~\beta^{+},~\beta^{-}\)

1.	\(20~\text{kJ}\)	2.	\(-20~\text{kJ}\)
3.	\(20~\text{J}\)	4.	\(-12~\text{kJ}\)

1.	\(\mathrm{tan^{-1}}\)(\(0.750\))	2.	\(\mathrm{sin^{-1}}\)(\(0.500\))
3.	\(\mathrm{sin^{-1}}\)(\(0.750\))	4.	\(\mathrm{tan^{-1}}\)(\(0.500\))